Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What parts of the Bible, if any, are inappropriate to read to children? Why?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If Russia needs the resources to fund the war in Ukraine, why doesn’t it throw open its doors to visa free western tourism? Enough people would be interested, & it would start to get some hard currency as €, CHF, £, SEK, $, JPY in the tills at shops.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Atheists, there is a god up there in heaven and he loves you so much that he sent his son to die the worst death imaginable and then to turn into a zombie all to save you from sin. Why do you reject him?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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